this just plain old sickens me.:angryfire
prescribing a psychotropic w/o a dx????? how can that be?
i firmly believe that doctors get a kickback from the pharmaceutical companies who promote their product(s).
you know, back in 4/05 my dd was dx'd w/bipolar. when the dx was made, she had also been using drugs and heavily drinking. that was her 1st hospitalization. she has had 5 subsequent hospitalizations, w/her body filled w/drugs and etoh on ea admission.
now from my research, no one can make a definitive dx for 30 days to ensure that all drugs are out of the system. she has been on so many meds, many that have made her worse.
a couple of wks ago she told me she really doesn't think she has bipolar.
granted, i understand the concept of denial. but she did request that she be re-evaluated since she's been clean for 2 months.
at 4 yo, there was a definitive dx made for her of add, via a team of pediatric specialists. and add/bipolar symptoms do overlap. she's not denying she has add but does question her current dx of bipolar since no one has ever evaluated her w/o the presence of drugs or alcohol in her system.
my point is, they prescribe these meds like they're candy. and it's scary. some of the meds she had been prescribed actually exacerbated her impulsivities, her poor judgement/insight, her self-destructiveness. and these were 5 psychiatrists that just went along with the regime. it was finally the last psychiatrist who dc'd 3 of the meds, stating the damage they were most likely causing.
does the fda approve of this? or do they get kickbacks too?